According to the second form of Kant’s categorical imperative(Act in such a way that you treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never as a means to an end, but always at the same time as an end), would it be morally permissible for me to agree to be someone’s slave? Explain1.5 – 2 page essay.
Agreement to Be Someones Slave and Second Form of Kant Essay
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